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A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: cbelt3
Date: May 22, 2012 11:23AM
I'm looking for knowledge, not hatred here. So here goes:

How is it that being Gay is supposed to be a genetic trait, when theoretically that trait would have generally edited itself out of the population ?

I'm willing to agree that bisexual people will have reproduced over the aeons, so this may be a proximate genetic inheritance cause.

Anyone willing to share knowledge ?

FWIW... I'm on record here as not having any issues with anyone's specific sexual preferences, have friends who are members of the LGBT community, etc. So this is a question in the class of 'why is the sky blue', and not intended to produce a political bias assumption.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: mattkime
Date: May 22, 2012 11:38AM
its genetic like becoming a preist is genetic



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Gutenberg
Date: May 22, 2012 11:43AM
Genetic probabilities are not absolute. A gay man can father a straight child. A straight man can father a gay child. A straight mother can give birth to a gay child, and a gay mother can give birth to a straight child.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Ted King
Date: May 22, 2012 11:49AM
I don't think there is enough scientific information yet to answer that question. There are really interesting puzzles; e.g., there are examples of identical twins (about as near to genetic clones as there is) who were brought up in the same environments and yet one twin is homosexual and one is heterosexual. To me that indicates that there are probably multiple factors involved - both genetic and environmental. My hunch is that there are genetic factors that influence the predisposition to be homosexual or heterosexual and that the environment in the womb as the fetus develops can trigger those genetic factors to influence the fetus' development in a manner that mostly determines sexual orientation.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Pam
Date: May 22, 2012 11:54AM
Quote
Ted King
I don't think there is enough scientific information yet to answer that question. There are really interesting puzzles; e.g., there are examples of identical twins (about as near to genetic clones as there is) who were brought up in the same environments and yet one twin is homosexual and one is heterosexual. To me that indicates that there are probably multiple factors involved - both genetic and environmental. My hunch is that there are genetic factors that influence the predisposition to be homosexual or heterosexual and that the environment in the womb as the fetus develops can trigger those genetic factors to influence the fetus' development in a manner that mostly determines sexual orientation.

Oh great. That'll start a new war on women. We're responsible for our kids being gay!
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Marc Anthony
Date: May 22, 2012 11:57AM
A recessive trait may not manifest for generations. There may also be an evolutionary advantage to expressing the gene. Additionally, not all gay people are non-breeding. I know several gay men that have started families.



Le poète doit vivre beaucoup, vivre dans tous les sens. - Verlaine
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: $tevie
Date: May 22, 2012 11:58AM
One of my best friends is the gay half of a set of identical twins. He has discussed the "environment in the womb" concept with me a couple of times and thinks it could have some validity. There is a third brother, born about a year and a half later, who is also gay. They would all probably be a great study for some researcher somewhere.



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: billb
Date: May 22, 2012 11:59AM
Sorry but the Greek Gay God is still around demanding his 10 %.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Black
Date: May 22, 2012 12:31PM
Quote
$tevie
One of my best friends is the gay half of a set of identical twins. He has discussed the "environment in the womb" concept with me a couple of times and thinks it could have some validity. There is a third brother, born about a year and a half later, who is also gay. They would all probably be a great study for some researcher somewhere.

I agree w/ your friend.

cbelt, your premise is based on a misunderstanding-- I think you're confusing "congenital" with "genetic." You also seem to be working on the assumption that the nuclear family is anything but a very modern phenomenon.

As to why the genetic propensity exists in the first place-- in times of scarcity a herd/pack/pride/group needs more helpers and less breeders. Hard to believe in these bizarre times we live in, but homosexuals in many past cultures were valued in their help to rear and care for the young.



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Dennis S
Date: May 22, 2012 01:13PM
I think testosterone levels in the womb have something to do with it. It is obvious a person's gayness is on a spectrum*, so testosterone and likely other hormone levels at a certain time in development would account for this.

* The spectrum also applies to relative masculinity of people who are straight.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: cbelt3
Date: May 22, 2012 02:39PM
Well done on the discussion, you've all given me a lot of food for thought. And keeping it informative... Applause.

Black.. interesting point, I was aware of that but didn't think of it at the moment. In a pack environment (and humans are an odd mix of pack and herd animals) the alpha controls reproduction by denying reproduction rights. Hmm...



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 05/22/2012 02:41PM by cbelt3.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Black
Date: May 22, 2012 02:45PM
Quote
Dennis S
I think testosterone levels in the womb have something to do with it. It is obvious a person's gayness is on a spectrum*, so testosterone and likely other hormone levels at a certain time in development would account for this.

* The spectrum also applies to relative masculinity of people who are straight.

There is nothing definitve that I've seen (could be in the meantime-- not a huge area of interest for me) but there has definitely been research suggesting that hormonal factors in the third trimester can 'trigger' homosexuality (in humans at least.)
Have always had a hard time looking at things as being on a "spectrum" personally . . .



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: J Marston
Date: May 22, 2012 03:42PM
Two issues are getting confused here:

cbelt's original post assumed that homosexuality was genetic and maladaptive.

1) We don't know that it's maladaptive. Exclusively homosexual conduct would not, obviously, propagate an individual's genes, but might (as Black suggests) provide useful helpers who enable the society to survive. In this sense, it can be anti-Darwinian for the individual but profoundly Darwinian for the group.

2) We don't know that it's genetic. A lot of behavior is learned at an age before we can understand what learning might be. Consider shyness: how do shy children learn to be shy? If there's a genetic component, it's pretty hard to say what it might be. It makes more sense to assume that it's learned behavior: but if it's learned, it's learned in ways that tend to defy our understanding of what learning is (since, at a minimum, very few parents want their children to be shy).
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: davester
Date: May 22, 2012 04:38PM
J Marston hits the nail on the head. The premise of the thread is highly questionable. I don't think I've ever heard of any valid studies that unquestionably conclude that homosexuality is wholly genetic. Also, evolutionary adaptation can be quite complex, not necessarily favoring passing along of an individual's genes. The subject of group selection versus individual selection is a controversial one amongst biologists, but there is evidence that group or kin survival is part of the mechanism of evolution.




"So be proud to be a decent American instead of just a w'anker whipping up fear!" - Michael D. Higgins, President of Ireland



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 05/22/2012 04:38PM by davester.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Black
Date: May 22, 2012 05:31PM
Quote
davester
J Marston hits the nail on the head. The premise of the thread is highly questionable. I don't think I've ever heard of any valid studies that unquestionably conclude that homosexuality is wholly genetic. Also, evolutionary adaptation can be quite complex, not necessarily favoring passing along of an individual's genes. The subject of group selection versus individual selection is a controversial one amongst biologists, but there is evidence that group or kin survival is part of the mechanism of evolution.

Wish I'd have said that . . .



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Chakravartin
Date: May 22, 2012 06:29PM
Quote
J Marston
Two issues are getting confused here:

cbelt's original post assumed that homosexuality was genetic and maladaptive.

1) We don't know that it's maladaptive. Exclusively homosexual conduct would not, obviously, propagate an individual's genes, but might (as Black suggests) provide useful helpers who enable the society to survive. In this sense, it can be anti-Darwinian for the individual but profoundly Darwinian for the group.

2) We don't know that it's genetic. A lot of behavior is learned at an age before we can understand what learning might be. Consider shyness: how do shy children learn to be shy? If there's a genetic component, it's pretty hard to say what it might be. It makes more sense to assume that it's learned behavior: but if it's learned, it's learned in ways that tend to defy our understanding of what learning is (since, at a minimum, very few parents want their children to be shy).

Third issue: it could be that it's not homosexuality per se, but a "propensity" for homosexuality that's passed on.

Fourth issue: (Related to the first...) We don't know what survival traits might be linked to it. Lots of characteristics are expressed together and many are polygenetic (requiring the contribution of several genes in order to be expressed), creating a continuum of possible traits, some of which might have great advantages over time.

Fifth issue (Related to Dennis S's post): Some homosexual traits may come from environmental effects such as exposure to steroids at varying levels during early development. At this point, it's hard to distinguish the influence of such events from genetic predispositions.

Sixth issue: Not politically correct, but I'm certain that some small percentage of homosexuals are so by choice. I am friends with women who prefer men for sex, but stay with their female partners for love. This does not in any way stand to refute a genetic or environmental predisposition towards a particular gender-identity and I don't think that it's the norm among homosexuals, so please don't attack me for mentioning it.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: mattkime
Date: May 22, 2012 07:01PM
Quote
Chakravartin
Sixth issue: Not politically correct, but I'm certain that some small percentage of homosexuals are so by choice. I am friends with women who prefer men for sex, but stay with their female partners for love. This does not in any way stand to refute a genetic or environmental predisposition towards a particular gender-identity and I don't think that it's the norm among homosexuals, so please don't attack me for mentioning it.

testosterone is linked to stronger partner gender preferences.

but yes, this all gets very complicated. there is a LOT more diversity than is commonly recognized.



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: cbelt3
Date: May 22, 2012 08:05PM
Maladaptive ?
No, my premise was merely based on the assumption that traits are 'genetically' passed on from parent to child and so forth. A lifeform that does not reproduce does not pass down its genetic traits. No ? Maladaptive towards the biological imperative of reproduction, but as an enabler of the survival of the young, then perhaps not maladaptive from a species perspective.

A sociological imperative is not a 'genetic' trait, to the best of my knowledge.

And no, I was not referring to 'studies' (thanks for the help there), but an upwelling in popular forums such as 'reddit' where same gender preference is deemed 'definitely genetic'. Not to mention the thesis that one is 'born gay', which implies a genetic link. However the gestational discussion above helps make much more sense of that. 'Born Gay' is not necessarily 'genetically programmed Gay'. But... as noted above, this may also be the case.

Thanks again... you folks are providing much useful information that helps me understand a less well publicly 'known' series of studies. Much wisdom here. Well done.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Kiva
Date: May 22, 2012 09:22PM
With many human traits, "Genetics loads the gun, environment pulls the trigger."



----------------------
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: michaelb
Date: May 22, 2012 10:12PM
i am not going to pretend to know, but why cant being gay be a valid and effective reproductive strategy for some in a population. many animals have individual mmbers that successfully reproduce outside the norm, it is part of natural variation. some of those behaviors could be interpreted by us as being gay like (this is probably wrong); but at least outside a dominant male hierarchy..

for humans i tend to think we are all gay more or less and so it is just a question of how much a society allows that to be expressed.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Rolando
Date: May 22, 2012 11:14PM
Quote
Kiva
With many human traits, "Genetics loads the gun, environment pulls the trigger."

And does a lot of the aiming.

I think that everyone is talking past the other part of homosexuality. Homosexual women. I see as much variability in gay women as men!



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: davester
Date: May 23, 2012 12:24AM
Quote
cbelt3
And no, I was not referring to 'studies' (thanks for the help there), but an upwelling in popular forums such as 'reddit' where same gender preference is deemed 'definitely genetic'. Not to mention the thesis that one is 'born gay', which implies a genetic link.

Reddit? Are you serious? "Born gay" in no way implies a genetic link.




"So be proud to be a decent American instead of just a w'anker whipping up fear!" - Michael D. Higgins, President of Ireland
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Lux Interior
Date: May 23, 2012 12:47AM
Quote
Pam
Oh great. That'll start a new war on women. We're responsible for our kids being gay!

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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Black
Date: May 23, 2012 12:51AM
Quote
Kiva
With many human traits, "Genetics loads the gun, environment pulls the trigger."

I like it.



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: rjmacs
Date: May 23, 2012 12:04PM
'Homosexual' and 'heterosexual' as categories of human identity are very recent constructions, historically. Humans seem to have a ubiquitous impulse to take today's way of understanding the world and to project it backward onto all of history and infinitely into the future. It's a massively narcissistic gesture, but understandable for animals who barely live long enough to grasp what's happening around them before they die.

The question makes for good conversation, cbelt3, and i'm proud of the forum for handling it so well to this point. But it would be a mistake to pretend that you haven't 'essentialized' concepts that are deeply fluid and changing in the framing if your inquiry. I hate to revert to Foucault, because he's so abstruse and relatively unknown, but his History of Sexuality and writings on power in society help a lot here. He creates a 'genealogy' of our understanding of sex and sexuality that traces how being sexual has changed over history. Suffice it to say that 'being' a sexuality is a deeply modern phenomenon - people have been sexual creatures forever, but the compulsion to inhabit a 'sexual identity' was never a concern until the organization of society became thoroughly dependent on the productive reorganization of people by sex. This is something that accelerated rapidly during industrialization, when increasing urbanization leads to a rupture of the social order (the way people lived around factories is NOTHING like how they lived on the farm). What emerged was a new social ordering, highly medicalized and technical, that completely upended how education, public policy, correctional systems, the military, etc. related to individuals. Among these changes was a 'disciplined' approach to sexuality that required people to 'be' heterosexual, homosexual, etc.

To sum up, people weren't 'homosexual' or 'heterosexual' until the last few hundred years. Those concepts simply didn't exist. You can pretend that they did, and project a modern understanding backwards onto all of history. Then we can start asking questions like "Was Plato a neoliberal?" and "Was Epicurus a Christian?" It may make for interesting talk, but the discussions only hold up as long as we imagine that present-day worldviews are permanently and transcendently valid. Then, we can all look up the word 'hubris' together.



rj
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Black
Date: May 23, 2012 12:33PM
Quote
rjmacs
'Homosexual' and 'heterosexual' as categories of human identity are very recent constructions, historically. Humans seem to have a ubiquitous impulse to take today's way of understanding the world and to project it backward onto all of history and infinitely into the future. It's a massively narcissistic gesture, but understandable for animals who barely live long enough to grasp what's happening around them before they die.

The question makes for good conversation, cbelt3, and i'm proud of the forum for handling it so well to this point. But it would be a mistake to pretend that you haven't 'essentialized' concepts that are deeply fluid and changing in the framing if your inquiry. I hate to revert to Foucault, because he's so abstruse and relatively unknown, but his History of Sexuality and writings on power in society help a lot here. He creates a 'genealogy' of our understanding of sex and sexuality that traces how being sexual has changed over history. Suffice it to say that 'being' a sexuality is a deeply modern phenomenon - people have been sexual creatures forever, but the compulsion to inhabit a 'sexual identity' was never a concern until the organization of society became thoroughly dependent on the productive reorganization of people by sex. This is something that accelerated rapidly during industrialization, when increasing urbanization leads to a rupture of the social order (the way people lived around factories is NOTHING like how they lived on the farm). What emerged was a new social ordering, highly medicalized and technical, that completely upended how education, public policy, correctional systems, the military, etc. related to individuals. Among these changes was a 'disciplined' approach to sexuality that required people to 'be' heterosexual, homosexual, etc.

To sum up, people weren't 'homosexual' or 'heterosexual' until the last few hundred years. Those concepts simply didn't exist. You can pretend that they did, and project a modern understanding backwards onto all of history. Then we can start asking questions like "Was Plato a neoliberal?" and "Was Epicurus a Christian?" It may make for interesting talk, but the discussions only hold up as long as we imagine that present-day worldviews are permanently and transcendently valid. Then, we can all look up the word 'hubris' together.

Good stuff, rj, and I certainly know better than to try to argue with Foucault, but-- I'm finding it odd that there's no mention of institutionalized "morality" (AKA the church) in all of that . . .



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: rjmacs
Date: May 23, 2012 02:12PM
Quote
Black
Quote
rjmacs
'Homosexual' and 'heterosexual' as categories of human identity are very recent constructions, historically. Humans seem to have a ubiquitous impulse to take today's way of understanding the world and to project it backward onto all of history and infinitely into the future. It's a massively narcissistic gesture, but understandable for animals who barely live long enough to grasp what's happening around them before they die.

The question makes for good conversation, cbelt3, and i'm proud of the forum for handling it so well to this point. But it would be a mistake to pretend that you haven't 'essentialized' concepts that are deeply fluid and changing in the framing if your inquiry. I hate to revert to Foucault, because he's so abstruse and relatively unknown, but his History of Sexuality and writings on power in society help a lot here. He creates a 'genealogy' of our understanding of sex and sexuality that traces how being sexual has changed over history. Suffice it to say that 'being' a sexuality is a deeply modern phenomenon - people have been sexual creatures forever, but the compulsion to inhabit a 'sexual identity' was never a concern until the organization of society became thoroughly dependent on the productive reorganization of people by sex. This is something that accelerated rapidly during industrialization, when increasing urbanization leads to a rupture of the social order (the way people lived around factories is NOTHING like how they lived on the farm). What emerged was a new social ordering, highly medicalized and technical, that completely upended how education, public policy, correctional systems, the military, etc. related to individuals. Among these changes was a 'disciplined' approach to sexuality that required people to 'be' heterosexual, homosexual, etc.

To sum up, people weren't 'homosexual' or 'heterosexual' until the last few hundred years. Those concepts simply didn't exist. You can pretend that they did, and project a modern understanding backwards onto all of history. Then we can start asking questions like "Was Plato a neoliberal?" and "Was Epicurus a Christian?" It may make for interesting talk, but the discussions only hold up as long as we imagine that present-day worldviews are permanently and transcendently valid. Then, we can all look up the word 'hubris' together.

Good stuff, rj, and I certainly know better than to try to argue with Foucault, but-- I'm finding it odd that there's no mention of institutionalized "morality" (AKA the church) in all of that . . .

The institutionalized 'morality' really wasn't concerned with sexual identity (and in many ways, still isn't - even the Catholic Church says that it's the same-sex act that matters, not the identity), which is why it doesn't appear in my tract above. (That is NOT to say that the c/Church is uninterested in defining your subjectivity in other ways through moral and bodily practices - just not this particular way.)

Edit: P.S. Also, it's a giant mistake to locate all of 'institutionalized morality' inside the church and outside of secular institutions like Medicine, Government, Academia, Military, etc. Each one of these centers of grand discourse functions precisely by enacting particular moralities. That's another one of Foucault's great gifts to postmodernism...



rj
AKA
Vreemac, Moth of the Future




Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 05/23/2012 02:18PM by rjmacs.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Black
Date: May 23, 2012 02:41PM
Hmmm . . . I undertstand the distinction between "the act" and "sexual identity" (in principal at least-- can't say it makes sense to me personally)-- but I'm not sure that discussion relates to cbelt's question . . . he could just as well have asked why it exists in animals other than humans; I guess it's possible but I don't think the animal's sexual identity plays much of a role, or if it does, then only very tightly bound to the instinctual drive towards same-sex llaisons.



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: rjmacs
Date: May 23, 2012 03:28PM
Quote
Black
Hmmm . . . I undertstand the distinction between "the act" and "sexual identity" (in principal at least-- can't say it makes sense to me personally)-- but I'm not sure that discussion relates to cbelt's question . . . he could just as well have asked why it exists in animals other than humans; I guess it's possible but I don't think the animal's sexual identity plays much of a role, or if it does, then only very tightly bound to the instinctual drive towards same-sex llaisons.

Yes (and i wouldn't expect it to make sense to you personally, as you - and i - live in a world where they are inextricably bound through discourse).

He could have asked why same-sex acts persistently occur in nature, and that would open up another line of inquiry. For example: We could de-naturalize the idea that the 'essential' function of sexual activity is genetic/procreative by examining how sexual behavior is exhibited broadly in the natural world. We could describe a theory of biological evolution in which a typically dimorphic system of reproduction co-evolved in creatures that also act sexually for social/organizational reasons. We could describe the naturally occurring diversity of sexual-genital expression among populations, in which significant subsets are found to be sterile, sexually ambiguous, or sexually variable, despite which these organisms typically survive and participate in ecosystems.

What would the result be? Well, if instead of assuming at the outset of the inquiry that sex is designed for sexual procreation (a deductive, and rather 'intelligent design-y' approach), we look at how sex occurs in the environment and ask what sex accomplishes in the world (an inductive, descriptive, and empirical approach), we'd end up with a very different theory of sex. First, the accounting for diversity in sexual expression and activity would not hinge on morally charged judgments of deviance. Second, this theory would reflect a complexity actually found in the world but not accounted for in traditional science. Third, such a theory would allow for an examination of higher-order animals (primates, etc.) that considers sex and sexual behavior as functional and multivariate rather than simple and teleologically reproductive. Lastly, it would put other theories that demand conformance to closed-system, anti-empirical accounts of reality in the hot seat, turning the scientific gaze back onto systems that often seem more interested in their own preservation than in better descriptions of the world. It would ask whether such closed systems actually serve another master than Truth, a discursive regime more interested in preserving the privileges of one group by categorically de-legitimizing nonconforming groups and individuals.

And we'd all have a little more to consider when we ask questions about 'why' homosexuality hasn't been weeded out through natural selection.



rj
AKA
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Marc Anthony
Date: May 23, 2012 03:37PM
Quote
rjmacs
To sum up, people weren't 'homosexual' or 'heterosexual' until the last few hundred years. Those concepts simply didn't exist.

Yeah, I don't buy it. @#$%&/hetero isn't a concept, it's a preference, and those are part of your makeup, whether they're merely hereditary or actually genetic. Perhaps the defined label didn't exist, but even a caveman would have preferences toward cavemen or caveladies.



Le poète doit vivre beaucoup, vivre dans tous les sens. - Verlaine
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: rjmacs
Date: May 23, 2012 03:44PM
Quote
Marc Anthony
Quote
rjmacs
To sum up, people weren't 'homosexual' or 'heterosexual' until the last few hundred years. Those concepts simply didn't exist.

Yeah, I don't buy it. @#$%&/hetero isn't a concept, it's a preference, and those are part of your makeup, whether they're merely hereditary or actually genetic. Perhaps the defined label didn't exist, but even a caveman would have preferences toward cavemen or caveladies.

Here i am referring to 'homosexual' and 'heterosexual' as primary identity categories - things without which we can't really be people, in the modern sense. I'm not talking about sexual activity. If you think that these categories have always been central to how we think of ourselves as individuals, i'd encourage you to revisit history. There simply weren't any 'homosexuals' in the Middle Ages, for example. Or, if there were, there wasn't a word for it, and they didn't think of themselves as 'homosexual.' There also weren't any heterosexuals. People simply didn't think of themselves in those terms. They may have thought of themselves as sexually proper, or licentiously deviant, etc. - but they didn't think of themselves as 'gay' or 'straight,' because those categories hadn't been invented yet.



rj
AKA
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Marc Anthony
Date: May 23, 2012 04:27PM
Quote
rjmacs
There simply weren't any 'homosexuals' in the Middle Ages, for example. Or, if there were, there wasn't a word for it, and they didn't think of themselves as 'homosexual.'

Society might have been different, but not that different. Sexuality always influenced culture, social networks, and mores, from the beginning of recorded history. Look up William Rufus, he was a gay personality in the High Middle Ages. There are others... Edward II, Richard Couer De Leon, and William Longchamp. Naked men used to run around the Norman courts and wrote erotic poetry to each other at Charlemagne. People have thought of themselves as being gay for a long time.



Le poète doit vivre beaucoup, vivre dans tous les sens. - Verlaine
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: rjmacs
Date: May 23, 2012 04:54PM
Quote
Marc Anthony
Quote
rjmacs
There simply weren't any 'homosexuals' in the Middle Ages, for example. Or, if there were, there wasn't a word for it, and they didn't think of themselves as 'homosexual.'

Society might have been different, but not that different. Sexuality always influenced culture, social networks, and mores, from the beginning of recorded history. Look up William Rufus, he was a gay personality in the High Middle Ages. There are others... Edward II, Richard Couer De Leon, and William Longchamp. Naked men used to run around the Norman courts and wrote erotic poetry to each other at Charlemagne. People have thought of themselves as being gay for a long time.

I'd like to hear more about what exactly you mean when you say, "thought of themselves as being gay," and the documentation thereof. These are all quintessential examples of 'backward-looking identification' that distort history to suit present-day understandings.



rj
AKA
Vreemac, Moth of the Future




Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 05/23/2012 05:40PM by rjmacs.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: kj
Date: May 23, 2012 06:02PM
>>but they didn't think of themselves as 'gay' or 'straight,' because those categories hadn't been invented yet.

Categories are not necessarily just arbitrary classes of things that we invent. The whole idea of "Natural Categories" has some relevance here, I would think. The first thing you notice about somebody is whether they are male or female. It's a category that would exist whether we "invented" it, or not. kj.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Chakravartin
Date: May 23, 2012 06:53PM
Quote
rjmacs
Quote
Marc Anthony
Quote
rjmacs
There simply weren't any 'homosexuals' in the Middle Ages, for example. Or, if there were, there wasn't a word for it, and they didn't think of themselves as 'homosexual.'

Society might have been different, but not that different. Sexuality always influenced culture, social networks, and mores, from the beginning of recorded history. Look up William Rufus, he was a gay personality in the High Middle Ages. There are others... Edward II, Richard Couer De Leon, and William Longchamp. Naked men used to run around the Norman courts and wrote erotic poetry to each other at Charlemagne. People have thought of themselves as being gay for a long time.

I'd like to hear more about what exactly you mean when you say, "thought of themselves as being gay," and the documentation thereof. These are all quintessential examples of 'backward-looking identification' that distort history to suit present-day understandings.

This is silly. It isn't worth debating. It's historical fact. There's no "backward looking identification" at issue.

Thomas Aquinas popularized the modern sexual categories and Christian sexual morality in the 13th century, stigmatizing homosexuality through the modern day. Plato's dialogues were full of rhetoric on sexual morality and homosexuality roughly 1600 years earlier. Hundreds of years before Plato, Homer praised buggery as a way to bond militias together and to alienate them from foreign troops.

They certainly knew what a homosexual was (not by that name since the word originated in the 19th century) in medieval Europe and the Greeks knew darned well that what they did offended people from some other cultures.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Date: May 23, 2012 09:08PM
Quote
michaelb
i am not going to pretend to know, but why cant being gay be a valid and effective reproductive strategy for some in a population.

I remember a study from the mid 1980's where the number of male mice (rats?) that exhibited homosexual tendencies was partly due to population density. When there were very few other mice to interact with, the gay male mice decided it was better to mate with a female than not mate at all. Some sort of a natural pressure response to help curb overpopulation?



in tha 510.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Black
Date: May 23, 2012 09:30PM
Quote
Filliam H. Muffman
Quote
michaelb
i am not going to pretend to know, but why cant being gay be a valid and effective reproductive strategy for some in a population.

I remember a study from the mid 1980's where the number of male mice (rats?) that exhibited homosexual tendencies was partly due to population density. When there were very few other mice to interact with, the gay male mice decided it was better to mate with a female than not mate at all. Some sort of a natural pressure response to help curb overpopulation?

I believe homosexual mice prefer to be called "queer."



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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Ca Bob
Date: May 24, 2012 12:49AM
There is one other issue that people seem to accept as a given, but probably should be treated with skepticism. How to put this? --- Suppose that there is one attribute that is so important to species survival that it supercedes just about everything else? Suppose that this attribute, due to the complexity of its development and the large number of required events bringing it into being, is only present in about 90 percent of live births. Maybe 95 percent.

That attribute is obviously our human intelligence. We manage to live in arctic climates and in the tropics, on mountains, in valleys, and on small islands, and we generally manage to find enough to eat, manage to avoid freezing to death or dying of dehydration, or even being killed by a non-human predator.

That intelligence is such a powerful force for species survival that we manage to continue as a species in spite of the fact that a few of us are born with defects in what it takes to be averagely intelligent, a few of us are born with some kind of wiring defect that will result in schizophrenia or some other issue, some of us are born straight, and others not so straight. The result from one generation to the next is that @#$%& sapiens continues to be the dominant species even though there are variations from the norm in every generation.

Perhaps it is just this simple: That the near miraculous trait of human intelligence requires a fine balance of lots of factors (genes and the intrauterine environment), so when we combine the genetic intermixing that comes with the unique sperm meeting the unique egg, most of the offspring will be what we would think of as normal, but some won't be. Any evolutionary pruning that reduces one kind of abnormality would potentially also remove the ability to create the full size, properly wired human brain.

In other words, it is hard to sort out whether some characteristic (such as a reduced propensity to mate with females who will bear children) are selected against or are not selected against, because the rapid and recent evolution of human intelligence is what has been so strongly selected FOR (forgive me raising my voice) and a few minor eccentricities in a modest percentage of live births just haven't been counterproductive enough from the evolutionary standpoint to remove them from the population.

More briefly: Evolutionary pruning cannot optimize everything and will not sand off every rough spot. In fact, it is critically important in evolutionary terms that a species be able to create some variability within every generation, because if the climate changes, the variant forms have to be there already if there are to be any survivors.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Ted King
Date: May 24, 2012 09:08AM
If there is a genetic component to sexual orientation, then there is another way, though probably not particularly likely, that strong sexual preference for members of the same gender could survive natural selection - genetic linkage. In genetic linkage, two genes are close to each other on a chromosome which means that they are very unlikely to be separated in the creation of reproductive cells (gametes - sperm and egg). If a gene that has a role in the trait of having a sexual preference for members of the same sex is linked to a gene that is very important for survival, then it may be much less likely to be selected out of the population by natural selection. As I said, I think this is unlikely to be the case, but it is possible.

Actually, I think the examples of identical twins where one is homosexual and the other heterosexual shows that at most genetics only plays a partial role in determining sexual orientation and those examples also may imply that there is no significant genetic role at all - in which case natural selection would not enter much into the picture. I think that the fact that some homosexuals exhibit strong inclination to have mannerisms and prefer activities usually associated with members of the opposite sex (effeminate males and masculine females) at a very early age implies that sexual orientation is probably established in the environment of the womb; that is, to the extent that environmental factors tend to be determinative.



Edited 2 time(s). Last edit at 05/24/2012 09:45AM by Ted King.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: $tevie
Date: May 24, 2012 10:13AM
Quote
Marc Anthony
Quote
rjmacs
There simply weren't any 'homosexuals' in the Middle Ages, for example. Or, if there were, there wasn't a word for it, and they didn't think of themselves as 'homosexual.'

Society might have been different, but not that different. Sexuality always influenced culture, social networks, and mores, from the beginning of recorded history. Look up William Rufus, he was a gay personality in the High Middle Ages. There are others... Edward II, Richard Couer De Leon, and William Longchamp. Naked men used to run around the Norman courts and wrote erotic poetry to each other at Charlemagne. People have thought of themselves as being gay for a long time.

I really think that they did not think of themselves as being gay. They thought of themselves as having sex with men. Having sex with men was one sexual option. It's not like today when we have to overthink everything.



"Stop thinking about art works as objects, and start thinking about them as triggers for experiences." ~ Brian Eno
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: rjmacs
Date: May 24, 2012 11:04AM
Quote
$tevie
Quote
Marc Anthony
Quote
rjmacs
There simply weren't any 'homosexuals' in the Middle Ages, for example. Or, if there were, there wasn't a word for it, and they didn't think of themselves as 'homosexual.'

Society might have been different, but not that different. Sexuality always influenced culture, social networks, and mores, from the beginning of recorded history. Look up William Rufus, he was a gay personality in the High Middle Ages. There are others... Edward II, Richard Couer De Leon, and William Longchamp. Naked men used to run around the Norman courts and wrote erotic poetry to each other at Charlemagne. People have thought of themselves as being gay for a long time.

I really think that they did not think of themselves as being gay. They thought of themselves as having sex with men. Having sex with men was one sexual option. It's not like today when we have to overthink everything.

agree smiley

Quote
Chakravartin
This is silly. It isn't worth debating. It's historical fact. There's no "backward looking identification" at issue.

Thomas Aquinas popularized the modern sexual categories and Christian sexual morality in the 13th century, stigmatizing homosexuality through the modern day. Plato's dialogues were full of rhetoric on sexual morality and homosexuality roughly 1600 years earlier. Hundreds of years before Plato, Homer praised buggery as a way to bond militias together and to alienate them from foreign troops.

Let's explore this a little further, because you and others here seem to be glossing over my key point: 'homosexuality' is an identical category - it defines the person as a fundamental trait inherent to being. Whether you believe that 'being' homosexual is a choice or a genetic fact, when we discuss the phenomenon, we use the word 'being,' not 'acting.' When Aquinas talks about 'copulation with an undue sex,' he is in no way talking about a positive identity - he is describing a perversion of the natural. When Plato's dialogues addressed morality and pederasts, it was in the context of a universe where men actively chose sexual partners of various ages and sexes, not where they were homosexual or heterosexual. The very concept was fluid and socially determined, which is WHY Plato discussed it in such detail. As you point out, his efforts were rehetorical - the attempt was to persuade, not polemicize. Homer's description of soldiers @#$%& one another was certainly a description of same-sex activity among men who had wives waiting for them at home, and conquered women available to be raped upon victory.

My point is NOT that no one in history has even commented on same-sex sexual activity. That would be preposterous. My argument is that it makes no sense to talk about 'being' homosexual or heterosexual across the span of history, because people simply didn't think of those sexual identities as fundamental identical traits - they weren't 'ways of being.'



rj
AKA
Vreemac, Moth of the Future
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: $tevie
Date: May 24, 2012 11:40AM
I think that women are more fluid at this sexual activity thing than men are. I've known several women who changed teams, so to speak, back and forth during the course of their lifetimes. Many men seem to think that they have to pick a lane and stay in it, which is why I think some of the men here are having problems imagining that one could have sex with another man and not equate it with making a lifestyle choice.

I had a gay friend who told me that bisexuals are people who are too chicken to admit they are gay. So this "pick a lane and stay in it" idea seems to be an idea that is not felt by heterosexuals alone.



"Stop thinking about art works as objects, and start thinking about them as triggers for experiences." ~ Brian Eno
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Ted King
Date: May 24, 2012 11:48AM
Quote
rjmacs

My point is NOT that no one in history has even commented on same-sex sexual activity. That would be preposterous. My argument is that it makes no sense to talk about 'being' homosexual or heterosexual across the span of history, because people simply didn't think of those sexual identities as fundamental identical traits - they weren't 'ways of being.'

I'm going to assume that in the last sentence you meant "fundamental identity traits" - you can correct me if that is an erroneous assumption.

I'm pretty sure I follow what you are saying, but I think there is some tension between your characterizations of "fundamental identity traits" and 'ways of being'. I'm sure that for at least a very long time there have been people who have felt pretty exclusively sexually attracted to only members of their own gender. I think it would be odd not characterize that as a way of being. But I can see where in more ancient times it was possible that people who felt that way would not have thought of their basic identity in terms of those feelings. Actually, I think the notion of "fundamental identity trait" is nebulous enough that it probably needs some clarification. What kinds of traits not having to do with sexual attraction would ancient people have thought of as fundamental identity traits and in what crucial way are those traits different from feeling pretty much exclusively sexually attracted to members of the same gender?



Edited 2 time(s). Last edit at 05/24/2012 11:56AM by Ted King.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: $tevie
Date: May 24, 2012 11:56AM
Did ancient people even worry about their fundamental identity traits? I would think they identified themselves as a member of their tribe, or country, or whatever. And as having male or female genitals. I can't imagine them pondering whether they were bi or gay, or whether they were artistic or scientific, or whether they were endomorphs or ectomorphs.



"Stop thinking about art works as objects, and start thinking about them as triggers for experiences." ~ Brian Eno
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: kj
Date: May 24, 2012 12:32PM
Sounds similar to the distinction made in the whole special ed "person first" thing. Person with a disability vs disabled person. Of course, the connotation being that you write off a whole "category" of people when you label them with one feature (homosexual vs person who is homosexual), the result being that you never get to know or consider the individual and their many different traits (he's homosexual, black, hispanic--don't need to know any more). It may be that at some point people didn't consider themselves a homosexual, but rather a person with a different sexual preference. But on the other hand, I'd be surprised if most people who have been homosexual didn't feel quite different from others to the point of considering themselves a different "category". Interesting to think about, but probably irrelevant to the original question. kj.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: rjmacs
Date: May 24, 2012 12:37PM
Quote
Ted King
Quote
rjmacs

My point is NOT that no one in history has even commented on same-sex sexual activity. That would be preposterous. My argument is that it makes no sense to talk about 'being' homosexual or heterosexual across the span of history, because people simply didn't think of those sexual identities as fundamental identical traits - they weren't 'ways of being.'

I'm going to assume that in the last sentence you meant "fundamental identity traits" - you can correct me if that is an erroneous assumption.

I'm pretty sure I follow what you are saying, but I think there is some tension between your characterizations of "fundamental identity traits" and 'ways of being'. I'm sure that for at least a very long time there have been people who have felt pretty exclusively sexually attracted to only members of their own gender.

Out of curiosity, why is it that you believe this? I'm not asking because i think you're wrong, i'm just asking you to interrogate the assumption.

Quote
Ted King
I think it would be odd not characterize that as a way of being. But I can see where in more ancient times it was possible that people who felt that way would not have thought of their basic identity in terms of those feelings. Actually, I think the notion of "fundamental identity trait" is nebulous enough that it probably needs some clarification. What kinds of traits not having to do with sexual attraction would ancient people have thought of as fundamental identity traits and in what crucial way are those traits different from feeling pretty much exclusively sexually attracted to members of the same gender?

Being a serf. Being a Greek. Being a mother. Being a Jew. Being a warrior.

The crucial differences are not of type, but of context. The reason that sexuality has not been a fundamental identity trait until recent centuries has to do with historical and cultural salience, not with discovery or sophistication. In every time and place in history, certain parts of being human are instantiated as more relevant, critical, and constitutive than others. This happens to lesser degrees over years and decades, and to greater degrees over centuries and millenia. What i'm arguing (and i realize that it's a subversive and unpopular idea) is that those historical exigencies are more than just filters or layers on top of some 'essential humanity' underneath. I'm saying that as far as social reality is concerned, those discursive regimes actually make us who we are, because they define how we define ourselves.

If you are in a society where skin color has little or no meaning, because what practically matters about you is overwhelmingly defined through your height, then what would it mean to say that you're Black or White or Red? The way you understand your place in the world, indeed the way you come to know yourself as a self, is much more about whether you're a Squat or Cloudie or Middler. Hundreds of years into the future, people in a skin-color-defined society may look back and talk about how Whites functioned in your era, but what does that mean? Does it make your Whiteness more real or valid, if you never even knew what a White was? How does that work?

If you're going to argue that people have always 'known' that they were 'heterosexual' or 'homosexual,' even if they didn't know those words, then i'm going to need to know not just how but WHY they 'knew' that about themselves. If the response is that it's something we just 'innately' know about ourselves, then i'm calling essentialist shenanigans, because there's no argument there, and clearly no need for evidence.



rj
AKA
Vreemac, Moth of the Future
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Marc Anthony
Date: May 24, 2012 01:02PM
Modernity didn't suddenly create separate classes, it just gave a label to something that already was. There were same-sex marriages at least as far back as the 100's. Alexander the Great famously loved Hephaestion. King James wrote love letters to and went on a tirade about his love for the Duke of Buckingham. It flies in the face of historical accounts—and good sense—to suggest that people didn't identify with their nature or that any form of attraction is something new under the sun. For certain, Romans pondered their sexuality and everything else—they fathered philosophy.



Le poète doit vivre beaucoup, vivre dans tous les sens. - Verlaine
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: $tevie
Date: May 24, 2012 01:03PM
Nobody is saying that same sex attraction is new. We are saying that people didn't use to think it was a big deal. It was just part of life.



"Stop thinking about art works as objects, and start thinking about them as triggers for experiences." ~ Brian Eno
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: rjmacs
Date: May 24, 2012 01:12PM
Quote
Marc Anthony
Modernity didn't suddenly create separate classes, it just gave a label to something that already was.

Actually, my last post claims that modernity (indeed, all societies) do create separate classes/categories, and they do NOT just give a label to something that already was. That 'thing that already was' actually wasn't that 'thing' before it had a defined social position; this doesn't mean that same-sex behavior was absent before 'homosexuality' was invented, just that it wasn't 'homosexuality.' You can claim that homosexuality was always 'there,' lurking beneath the surface and simply not named or categorized, but it's a weak claim. You have nothing but supposition and inaccessible interiority to support the argument, and i don't buy it.

Quote
Marc Anthony
It flies in the face of historical accounts—and good sense—to suggest that people didn't identify with their nature or that any form of attraction is something new under the sun.

I don't know how to respond to this other than to say that i have obviously failed to convey my points clearly in the discussion above. I'm going to assume that this results from my inadequacy, but suffice it to say that your claim here does not address my position.

Edit: edited to elaborate my disagreement.



rj
AKA
Vreemac, Moth of the Future




Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 05/24/2012 01:27PM by rjmacs.
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Re: A mildly flameworthy logical question
Posted by: Ted King
Date: May 24, 2012 01:49PM
Quote
rjmacs
Quote
Ted King
Quote
rjmacs

My point is NOT that no one in history has even commented on same-sex sexual activity. That would be preposterous. My argument is that it makes no sense to talk about 'being' homosexual or heterosexual across the span of history, because people simply didn't think of those sexual identities as fundamental identical traits - they weren't 'ways of being.'



I'm going to assume that in the last sentence you meant "fundamental identity traits" - you can correct me if that is an erroneous assumption.

I'm pretty sure I follow what you are saying, but I think there is some tension between your characterizations of "fundamental identity traits" and 'ways of being'. I'm sure that for at least a very long time there have been people who have felt pretty exclusively sexually attracted to only members of their own gender.

Out of curiosity, why is it that you believe this? I'm not asking because i think you're wrong, i'm just asking you to interrogate the assumption.

I believe it because I think that feeling pretty exclusively sexually attracted to only members of one's own gender is usually the result of biology (environment - especially the environment of the womb - or genetics or likely a combination of the two), not the result of social circumstances, and I don't believe our biology has changed significantly over many thousands of years.

Quote
rjmacs

Quote
Ted King
I think it would be odd not characterize that as a way of being. But I can see where in more ancient times it was possible that people who felt that way would not have thought of their basic identity in terms of those feelings. Actually, I think the notion of "fundamental identity trait" is nebulous enough that it probably needs some clarification. What kinds of traits not having to do with sexual attraction would ancient people have thought of as fundamental identity traits and in what crucial way are those traits different from feeling pretty much exclusively sexually attracted to members of the same gender?

Being a serf. Being a Greek. Being a mother. Being a Jew. Being a warrior.

The crucial differences are not of type, but of context. The reason that sexuality has not been a fundamental identity trait until recent centuries has to do with historical and cultural salience, not with discovery or sophistication. In every time and place in history, certain parts of being human are instantiated as more relevant, critical, and constitutive than others. This happens to lesser degrees over years and decades, and to greater degrees over centuries and millenia. What i'm arguing (and i realize that it's a subversive and unpopular idea) is that those historical exigencies are more than just filters or layers on top of some 'essential humanity' underneath. I'm saying that as far as social reality is concerned, those discursive regimes actually make us who we are, because they define how we define ourselves.

If you are in a society where skin color has little or no meaning, because what practically matters about you is overwhelmingly defined through your height, then what would it mean to say that you're Black or White or Red? The way you understand your place in the world, indeed the way you come to know yourself as a self, is much more about whether you're a Squat or Cloudie or Middler. Hundreds of years into the future, people in a skin-color-defined society may look back and talk about how Whites functioned in your era, but what does that mean? Does it make your Whiteness more real or valid, if you never even knew what a White was? How does that work?

If you're going to argue that people have always 'known' that they were 'heterosexual' or 'homosexual,' even if they didn't know those words, then i'm going to need to know not just how but WHY they 'knew' that about themselves. If the response is that it's something we just 'innately' know about ourselves, then i'm calling essentialist shenanigans, because there's no argument there, and clearly no need for evidence.

I mostly agree with what you say here, including the point about essentialism. I think, though, that we should not bifurcate between either essentialism or identity as purely contingent on cultural conventions. Someone in an earlier post said that they don't believe in continuums... well, I think most human attributes - whether the consequence of biology or culture or a combination of the two - do come in a continuum. Many attributes like the length of index fingers that certainly do come in a continuum are probably almost always just background "noise" in a culture that contribute extremely little to nothing to a sense of identity no matter what culture we are talking about. But I also think that some human attributes do rise significantly above the background noise of cultures in a fairly consistent general way; e.g., gender identification. I suspect that feeling strongly sexually attracted to only members of one's own gender is an attribute that tends to rise above the background noise enough to be something that contributes at least somewhat to that person's sense of identity, but the degree to which is rises above the background cultural noise depends very much on the prevailing attitudes of the culture with respect to that attribute.



Edited 3 time(s). Last edit at 05/24/2012 01:57PM by Ted King.
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